Quoted from yellowghost:
I suppose I find it annoying when some sellers add the price of shipping and duty on top of the asking price. How can those costs effect the value of a product that is already INSIDE the country, presumably since the 90's. The taxes and shipping were paid for long time ago by somebody else unless the seller was the original owner. Most cases not..and the machine was bought dirt cheap when operators started unloading them. Look at it this way...the guy at the 7-11 wouldnt make very much money if he was selling cans of coke for 20 dollars a piece because he reckoned it would cost the customer 25 dollars to drive to the closest bordertown to get one. Just saying.
Everyone likes money so people sell stuff for what they can get for it and not what they paid for it. When multiple people are interested in selling and buying the same things you have a ‘market’ with ‘supply and demand’.
Example: say there were no MM in Canada except for one which is owned by Fred living in Calgary. Fred was given this new MM as a gift from winning a contest from Williams including free delivery.
Fred wants to sell at today’s prices because he likes money. What he got it for has absolutely nothing to do with what he sells it for. Now what price should Fred sell it for?
The ‘market’ price is not only determined by Fred but moreso by what all the other buyers are willing to pay for it. A Canadian buyer’s only other reasonable alternative is to buy from the US for which he will have to pay at least transportation costs and taxes. Therfore, a Canadian buyer —will be willing— to pay this amount more for Fred’s machine so Fred can then bake-in these costs into his price. Yes, even though he paid zero shipping.
It’s not an explicit charge that’s added, it’s just one of —many factors— that can be invisibly baked into the market price. And I’m not defending it, just trying to explain one part of how economics might factor into pin prices.
In the end, a pin is worth what buyers are willing to pay for it and no more.